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CS0-003 Testking Exam Questions | CS0-003 Exam Questions

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The CySA+ certification exam covers various topics such as network security, vulnerability management, threat management, incident response, and compliance and regulations. CS0-003 Exam focuses on practical, hands-on skills that are required to perform the job of a cybersecurity analyst. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for individuals who are working in roles such as cybersecurity analyst, security engineer, security consultant, and network security analyst. By obtaining the CySA+ certification, professionals can demonstrate their expertise in the field of cybersecurity analysis and can enhance their career prospects.

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q289-Q294):

NEW QUESTION # 289
Based on an internal assessment, a vulnerability management team wants to proactively identify risks to the infrastructure prior to production deployments. Which of the following best supports this approach?

A. SDLC training
B. Bug bounty
C. Threat modeling
D. Penetration testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Threat modeling is a proactive approach used to identify, analyze, and mitigate potential threats before they impact production systems. It is especially useful in early development stages to anticipate vulnerabilities and attack paths.
* Option B (Penetration testing) is a reactive measure performed on deployed systems, rather than prior to production.
* Option C (Bug bounty) programs incentivize external researchers but do not proactively model risks before deployment.
* Option D (SDLC training) improves security awareness but does not actively assess risks.
Thus, A (Threat modeling) is the best choice, as it enables early identification and mitigation of security risks.

NEW QUESTION # 290
A security analyst needs to identify a computer based on the following requirements to be mitigated:
* The attack method is network-based with low complexity.
* No privileges or user action is needed.
* The confidentiality and availability level is high, with a low integrity level.
Given the following CVSS 3.1 output:
* Computer1: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
* Computer2: CVSS3.1/AV:L/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
* Computer3: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
* Computer4: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Which of the following machines should the analyst mitigate?

A. Computer3
B. Computer4
C. Computer1
D. Computer2

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:To match the mitigation criteria, we analyze each machine's CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) attributes:
* Attack Vector (AV): N for network (matches the requirement of network-based attack).
* Attack Complexity (AC): L for low (meets the requirement for low complexity).
* Privileges Required (PR): N for none (indicating no privileges are needed).
* User Interaction (UI): N for none (matches the requirement that no user action is needed).
* Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), and Availability (A): Requires high confidentiality and availability with low integrity.
From these criteria:
* Computer1 requires user interaction (UI:R), which disqualifies it.
* Computer2 has a local attack vector (AV:L), which disqualifies it for a network-based attack.
* Computer3 has a high attack complexity (AC:H), which does not meet the low complexity requirement.
* Computer4 meets all criteria: network attack vector, low complexity, no privileges, no user interaction, and appropriate confidentiality, integrity, and availability levels.
Thus, Computer4 is the correct answer.
References:
* NIST NVD (National Vulnerability Database): CVSS vector standards.
* CVSS 3.1 User Guide: Explanation of each CVSS metric and its application in vulnerability prioritization.

NEW QUESTION # 291
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

A. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
B. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.
C. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
D. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions. The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.

NEW QUESTION # 292
Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?

A. PAM
B. PKI
C. DLP
D. IDS

Answer: C

Explanation:
PAM (privileged access management) is a security framework that helps organizations manage and control access to privileged accounts and systems.
IDS (intrusion detection system) is a security technology that monitors network traffic for malicious activity.
PKI (public key infrastructure) is a set of technologies that enable secure communication over public networks.
DLP (data loss prevention) is a security technology that helps organizations prevent the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data.
Of the above options, only DLP is specifically designed to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization. PAM, IDS, and PKI can all be used to help protect PII, but they are not specifically designed for this purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 293
Which of the following best explains the importance of communicating with staff regarding the official public communication plan related to incidents impacting the organization?

A. To define how each employee will be contacted after an event occurs
B. To designate an external public relations firm to represent the organization
C. To establish what information is allowed to be released by designated employees
D. To ensure that all news media outlets are informed at the same time

Answer: C

Explanation:
Communicating with staff about the official public communication plan is important to avoid unauthorized or inaccurate disclosure of information that could harm the organization's reputation, security, or legal obligations. It also helps to ensure consistency and clarity of the messages delivered to the public and other stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION # 294
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